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Aristotle's conception of ethical perception
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Extra resources for Aristotle's Theory of Moral Insight
For he only acts virtuously because by so doing he will himself obtain a large proportion of the only type of good that he considers 'final', natural goods. By contrast, of course, the noble-and-good man does consider moral behaviour choiceworthy in itself. But then does he not consider natural goods choiceworthy in themselves, as indeed they are? The answer is undoubtedly that he does. 2 concerned with natural goods, viz. with the question of how to share them out, and hence presuppose that such things are goods and things to be chosen for their own sake.
It is different with people who are noble-and-good. Not only do they value things that are noble for the sake of those things themselves: goods too which are not by nature noble, but are by nature good (viz. the natural goods) are noble 'for t h e m ' . For a thing is noble if that for the sake of which the person chooses and acts is noble. And this is why natural goods are noble for the noble-and-good man. Take, by way of example, 'what is just'. What is just is noble; b u t it is also what accords with people's 'worth' [axia, a8), and the nobleand-good man is himself worthy of natural goods.
3 THE VIRTUES 65 community of humans involved as a whole — the principle of utility; and (it) that such acts are seen by the agent to be worth doing independently of how large an amount of natural goods he will himself obtain, but simply because he sees that in the sharing of natural goods he has himself no special claim to them just because he is the individual he is — the principle of nobility? Or finally, does Aristotle imply anything, in what he actually says of each individual virtue, for the question of the objective good of each of them?
Aristotle's Theory of Moral Insight by Engberg-Pederson, Visit Amazon's Troels Engberg-Pedersen Page, search results, Learn about Author Central, Troels Engberg-Pedersen,